Perkins: Pretexting dates don't match

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Interesting...

1) You stole my line! I was going to mention "legally questionable" vs. "illegal".

2) Regarding the question of a starving person stealing food...yes, it would be legally defined as theft. But, it is interesting to note that classical ethics does not define it as immoral, assuming that the starving person has first asked for food at each available outlet, been denied, and now has no other recourse. The morality of taking the food would be considered valid in those circumstances because of the recognition that the person's right to life is superior to the right to property of another person/company. Those circumstances should hopefully be rare in today's developed societies - with food banks and free meal programs available. In any case, it's interesting that it is in fact ethically permissible to take food you don't own, within some rather narrow circumstances.

Posted by: techboy_z   Posted on: 09/20/06 You are currently: a Guest | Members login | Terms of Use

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