Microsoft balances patents, standards

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Since Zdnet loimits thread length. Here are your answers Axe.

Axe (Bit) asks:
Where did I slur Linux or the Mac? You seem to be confused.

in answer to my post:

Rather than answering the assertion with proof that he isn't the same person, No_Axe rather slurs Linux and MacIntosh, Solaris and all other users, who don't use the OS of his choice. Avoiding the question doesn't qualify as an answer, does it?

Note that Axe still doesn't answer the parent post's accusation that he is the same person as the Bit? He further reinforces the perception that he and Bit must be the same person by not answering the accusation. Instead, he merely accuses me of being confused in an attempt to shift the interest from himself? (Bit used to do that as well)

I will answer the primary question though Axe(Bit). You want to know where you slurred. You imply you don't slur? I guffaw! Perhaps that word "slur" does not mean what you think it means?

Slur can mean "to pass over lightly or carelessly and treat without due consideration" You haven't the experience, as evidenced by numerous posts, to know all the features of any of product, other than Windows, to determine if they are all truly "toys". In short, you merely gloss over without due consideration any product not in majority use and any user not in the majority. Thus you do indeed slur all of us who do not use Windows, when you refer to us by exclusive implication as the 5%, who use his "favorite toy" and you do so with obvious derision and without due consideration.

I'm sorry but "I test on Linux" doesn't make you an expert. Neither does "I know we've got a print server that runs Linux" or "We've got a few Macs in the graphics department" make you an expert. These are slurs. You gloss over without due consideration all the uses of these two fine OS and by extension you slur their users.


Bit (Axe) then further inquires:

By the way, how do I prove a negative?

in answer to this section of my post:

As for me, I've put several No_Axe and old Bit posts through a Bayesian filter with other ZD-Net posts and both filter out in the same lump. Seems that if he's not Bit; he certainly writes like Bit: down to word choice, order, and length.

The answer to Bit/Axe's question is very simple.

Remember elementary logic? To prove a negative assertion is possible! To prove "No Axe is Bit" one must merely show that "Some Axe are Bit" or more strongly "All Axe are Bit" are both false. In the context of my evidence, you have to show that in some way you have not the same psychology as the character we have all come to know as Bit. Or you can show that your writing style, word choice, pair choice and so on are not Bit's as measured by a properly configured Bayesian filter. Or you could show that another comparable dataset, that is provably not Bit also registers as Bit. Any would help your case. Thus endeth the lesson in basic logic. Proving a negative is possible by applying mere exclusionary principles.

So, are you up to the task of submitting such proof? Or will you simply claim what has been patently false to most of us since these boards were first converted? You could at least make an effort at proof. Of course, if you choose not to, and truly are not Bit, then you will forever be castigated as holding his opinions and forced forever to battle the emnity that he has inspired in many here.

Which you do is your choice. Personally, if I were you and as you claim, not Bit; I'd not want to be associated with him. That's just me though... you do as you like.

Posted by: John Le'Brecage   Posted on: 02/03/04 You are currently: a Guest | Members login | Terms of Use

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