Could Apple loss be IBM's gain?

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Question:

Will Intel have to devote a great deal of expense to create chips for Apple?

If this is true for IBM:

An order for Mac chips falls somewhere between the two. Extensive development is needed for one customer, but is production really high enough to beat Moore's Second Law, the idea that costs rise with complexity, and grow exponentially?
It's possible that IBM concluded, not any more. Given Apple's proprietary model, the contract may not have been worth fighting for.

then why wouldn't it be true for Intel?

But my impression is that Apple will be using off-the-shelf Intel chips.

If IBM could have worked for Apple without small production runs and expensive design work, would IBM have kept the contract?

Seems a contradiction.

Posted by: Anton Philidor   Posted on: 06/09/05 You are currently: a Guest | Members login | Terms of Use

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